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Tag: linguistics

HOMOSEXUAL: How is Bible inerrant if the word ‘homosexual’ was not used in the NKJV until 1982?

The original question was:  As to Biblical references to the words homosexuals or sodomites, would I be correct in saying that the 1611 King James Version didn’t include either word, until the 1982 New King James Version – a period of 371 years later? Who or what caused the alteration? Why did the alteration take […]

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